Tuesday, May 27, 2008

Just a question I had...

Does Leviticus 5:1 sound confusing to anyone? It says:
And if a soul sin, and hear the voice of swearing, and is a witness, whether he hath seen or known of it; if he do not utter it, then he shall bear his iniquity.
It seems a little funny to me that Christ would blame the hearer of someone else swearing or taking his name in vain. And when it says "then he shall bear his iniquity" whose iniquity are we talking about? I did look up the Greek for the word "hear" and it said,
"a primitive root; to hear intelligently
(often with implication of attention, obedience, etc.; causatively, to tell, etc.):--X attentively, call (gather) together, X carefully, X certainly, consent, consider, be content, declare, X diligently, discern, give ear, (cause to, let, make to) hear(-ken, tell), X indeed, listen, make (a) noise, (be) obedient, obey, perceive, (make a) proclaim(-ation), publish, regard, report, shew (forth), (make a) sound, X surely, tell, understand, whosoever (heareth), witness."
So perhaps if a soul hears someone swear and proclaims/regards/or declares it he shall bear iniquity? The word witness also means "testimony; specifically, a recorder", so....maybe it has something to do with gossiping to someone else ( i.e."you know what I heard Mrs. Smith saying???")
And another thing...how much of the OT law is still true for our lives now? Obviously, making sure that our burnt offering's head is turned towards the northeast isn't something we have to worry about....but why was that stuck in the Bible?
As you can tell, I'm running in circles here so any input would be helpful :)
Thank you! I really love reading all of your thoughts, and having you here has helped me stay on track with my reading...mostly... :P

No comments:

 
Made by Lena